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		<title>Just4Cert ee0-425 Free download</title>
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		<description><![CDATA[ee0-425 Exam Packereer Packetshaper 6 Certification practice exam Exam Number/Code : ee0-425 Exam Name : Packereer Packetshaper 6 Certification Questions and Answers : 120 Q&#38;As Update Time: 2009-09-12 Price: $ 150.00 $ 125.00 buy now:ee0-425 ee0-425 exam Exam Description It is well known that ee0-425 test is the hot exam of Exam Express certifications. just4cert [...]]]></description>
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<h1>ee0-425 Exam</h1>
<h2> Packereer Packetshaper 6 Certification  <strong>practice exam</strong></h2>
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<li>Exam Number/Code : <span id="goods_sn">ee0-425</span> </li>
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Exam	  :  Exam Express EE0-425<br />
Title    :  Packereer Packetshaper 6 Certification Exam</p>
<p>
1. Click the Exhibit button.<br />
Which PacketShaper feature can be enabled to ensure that an Ethernet switch that forms the Branch Office LAN is able to detect if the router fails?<br />
A. Failover<br />
B. Bypass mode<br />
C. Link-State Mirroring<br />
D. Bridge Passthrough<br />
Answer: C</p>
<p>2. A PacketShaper is located at a branch office with a 256 Kbps WAN connection to the corporate office. A dedicated application server (IP address 192.168.10.10) resides at the corporate office and communicates via Port 1007 on the client side. Which two matching rules would classify this traffic? (Choose two.)<br />
A. single matching rule with value of 1007 listed in the Inside Port(s) field<br />
B. single matching rule with value of 192.168.10.10 listed in the Outside Name field<br />
C. single matching rule with value of 192.168.10.10 listed in the Inside Address field<br />
D. single matching rule with value of 192.168.10.10 listed in the Outside Address field<br />
Answer: AD</p>
<p>3. Which statement about hostlists is true?<br />
A. You can re-use the same hostlist for multiple classes.<br />
B. You cannot have DNS names and IP addresses in the same list.<br />
C. You can copy a hostlist created under /Inbound to /Outbound to reuse it.<br />
D. You cannot add DNS names to a list if you have not set the DNS server in Setup.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>4. Which method allows you to have a class that will capture just Citrix-ICA print traffic?<br />
A. creating a Citrix class with criterion option set to &quot;Printer&quot; and the value of the criterion field set to the name of your printer<br />
B. creating a Citrix class with criterion option set to &quot;Priority&quot; and the value of the criterion field set to the value of the priority tag in your print traffic<br />
C. creating a Citrix class with criterion option set to &quot;Client Name&quot; and the value of the criterion field set to the name of the host requesting the print job<br />
D. creating a Citrix class with criterion option set to &quot;Published Application&quot; and the value of the criterion field set to the name of the application issuing the print job<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>5. A PacketShaper is located at a branch office with a 256 Kbps WAN connection to the corporate office. The administrator wants to classify traffic based on a series of port numbers (6005 through 6007) that the application server at the corporate office listens on. When creating the class, which two matching rule scenarios classify this traffic? (Choose two.)<br />
A. single matching rule with value of 6005-6007 listed in the Inside Port(s) field<br />
B. single matching rule with value of 6005-6007 listed in the Outside Port(s) field<br />
C. single matching rule with value of 6005, 6006, 6007 listed in the Inside Port(s) field<br />
D. three multiple matching rules with value of 6005, 6006, 6007 (separately for each of the three) listed in the Outside Port(s) field<br />
Answer: BD</p>
<p>6. You want to create a Citrix class that will match traffic by client name and an HTTP class that will match traffic by user-agent and URL. Which command set can you use to determine what you should specify in your matching rules?<br />
A. traffic flow<br />
B. traffic history<br />
C. class criteria<br />
D. class capture-ids<br />
Answer: C</p>
<p>7. You have just received a new PacketShaper to manage your private WAN and need to configure it. The PacketShaper has already been physically installed in the rack and connected inline between your local LAN switch and your WAN router. In addition to the WAN router, you also have an Internet router that will serve as your default gateway.Your laptop is also connected to the LAN switch.<br />
You open a browser and try to connect to http://unconfigured.packetshaper.com in order to go through PacketShaper Guided Setup, but you cannot connect.<br />
What is the reason for this?<br />
A. You are trying to connect to the wrong URL. The correct URL is http://unconfigured.packeteer.com.<br />
B. You forgot to include the proper port number in the URL. The URL should be http://unconfigured.packetshaper.com:2000.<br />
C. The PacketShaper must be inline between your laptop and the Internet in order for you to be able to connect to it using http://unconfigured.packetshaper.com.<br />
D. You must run Guided Setup before deploying. You will not be able to connect to it using a browser until you remove it from the network and use the console cable and a terminal application to complete initial setup.<br />
Answer: C</p>
<p>8. Why would you configure the Failover feature in Setup?<br />
A. to detect if a Frame Relay PVC has failed and to adjust the link speed as appropriate<br />
B. to detect if a site router&#8217;s primary link has failed and to adjust  the link speed as appropriate<br />
C. to detect if a site router has failed and to configure a new site router IP address and link speed<br />
D. to detect if a WAN router has become unavailable and to adjust the total link speed as appropriate<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>9. A custom traffic class has been created for a device on the network. The Inbound/Test class has been created with a criteria for the IP address of 10.3. This device uses HTTP, SMTP, and POP3. This device needs a different set of rules than the other devices on the network. The following traffic tree shows the placement of the class in the tree.<br />
How do you make sure an HTTP flow to 10.1.1.3 is being classified in the Inbound/Test class?<br />
A. set class to Exception<br />
B. set class to Inheritable<br />
C. turn on Top Talkers/Listeners<br />
D. turn on traffic discovery within class<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>10. Which two features are compatible with Direct Standby? (Choose two.)<br />
A. user events<br />
B. ATM support<br />
C. compression<br />
D. traffic shaping<br />
Answer: AD</p>
<p>11. After changing the IP addressing within your network, you cannot access a PacketShaper from telnet or through the web interface. You connect to the PacketShaper using HyperTerminal. Which two commands will correct the IP address? (Choose two.)<br />
A. ip address<br />
B. setup guide<br />
C. setup address<br />
D. setup ipaddress<br />
Answer: BD</p>
<p>12. Which three functions are allowed by PacketShaper&#8217;s command scheduling feature? (Choose three.)<br />
A. back up measurement data to an FTP server nightly<br />
B. download configuration changes from PolicyCenter hourly<br />
C. disable Instant Messaging applications during classroom lecture times<br />
D. increase priority for a specific class during the first week of every month<br />
Answer: ACD</p>
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		<title>Just4Cert ee0-511 Free download</title>
		<link>http://www.certification-braindumps.net/ee0-511-exams/</link>
		<comments>http://www.certification-braindumps.net/ee0-511-exams/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Wed, 21 Oct 2009 17:16:04 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
				<category><![CDATA[Exam Express]]></category>

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		<description><![CDATA[ee0-511 Exam f5 big-ip v9 local traffic management practice exam Exam Number/Code : ee0-511 Exam Name : f5 big-ip v9 local traffic management Questions and Answers : 92 Q&#38;As Update Time: 2009-09-08 Price: $ 150.00 $ 125.00 buy now:ee0-511 ee0-511 exam Exam Description It is well known that ee0-511 test is the hot exam of [...]]]></description>
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<p>
1. Which statement is true regarding fail-over?<br />
A.Hardware fail-over is disabled by default.<br />
B.Hardware fail-over can be used in conjunction with network failover.<br />
C.If the hardware fail-over cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will always assume the active role.<br />
D.By default, hardware fail-over detects voltage across the fail-over cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>2. What is the default IP address on a BIG-IP&#8217;s management port?<br />
A.192.168.1.245/16<br />
B.192.168.1.245/24<br />
C.192.168.245.245/16<br />
D.192.168.245.245/24<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>3. Which three methods are available for remote authentication of users allowed to administer a BIG-IP system through the Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)<br />
A.LDAP<br />
B.OCSP<br />
C.Radius<br />
D.VASCO<br />
E.Active Directory<br />
Answer: ACE</p>
<p>4. When initially configuring the BIG-IP System using the config tool, which three parameters can be set? (Choose three.)<br />
A.the netmask of the management port<br />
B.the host name of the management port<br />
C.the IP address of the management port<br />
D.the default route for the management port<br />
E.the port lockdown of the management port<br />
Answer: ACD</p>
<p>5. Which two profile types would be required with a virtual server so that cookie persistence is enabled? (Choose two.)<br />
A.TCP<br />
B.UDP<br />
C.HTTP<br />
D.WWW<br />
E.source address persistence<br />
Answer: AC</p>
<p>6. Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)<br />
A.The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.<br />
B.All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.<br />
C.All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.<br />
D.The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.<br />
E.The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the 1000, 2400, and 5100.<br />
Answer: DE</p>
<p>7. Which two must be sent to the license server to generate a new license? (Choose two.)<br />
A.the system&#8217;s dossier<br />
B.the system&#8217;s host name<br />
C.the system&#8217;s base license<br />
D.the system&#8217;s registration key<br />
E.the system&#8217;s purchase order number<br />
Answer: AD</p>
<p>8. Which two F5 switch platforms always have both a compact flash and a hard drive? (Choose two.)<br />
A.1000<br />
B.1500<br />
C.2400<br />
D.3400<br />
E.5100<br />
F.6400<br />
Answer: DF</p>
<p>9. The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.<br />
A.Neither the pool nor it&#8217;s members or nodes has any monitor assigned.<br />
B.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and all of the pool&#8217;s members have failed the monitor&#8217;s test.<br />
C.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and some of the pool&#8217;s members have failed the monitor&#8217;s test.<br />
D.A system-wide monitor has tested all nodes successfully, but the pool&#8217;s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>10. Which three methods can be used for initial access to a BIG-IP system? (Choose three.)<br />
A.serial console access<br />
B.SSH access to the management port<br />
C.SSH access to any of the switch ports<br />
D.HTTP access to the management port<br />
E.HTTP access to any of the switch ports<br />
F.HTTPS access to the management port<br />
G.HTTPS access to any of the switch ports<br />
Answer: ABF</p>
<p>11. A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and have more memory and a faster processor than the others. Assuming all other factors are equal and traffic should be sent to all members, which two load-balancing methods are appropriate? (Choose two.)<br />
A.Priority<br />
B.Observed<br />
C.Round Robin<br />
D.Ratio Member<br />
Answer: BD</p>
<p>12. Which user-type has access to change member states, but not to add or delete objects from the configuration?<br />
A.Guests<br />
B.Operators<br />
C.Power Users<br />
D.Administrators<br />
Answer: B</p>
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		<pubDate>Wed, 21 Oct 2009 03:12:19 +0000</pubDate>
		<dc:creator>admin</dc:creator>
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<p>
1. Which three types of applications are supported by the Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)<br />
A.TN3270 access to mainframe<br />
B.TN3270 ssh access to mainframe<br />
C.TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems<br />
D.Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host<br />
E.full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host<br />
Answer: ACD</p>
<p>2. Which two statements are true about initial access to the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.)<br />
A.The Admin has limited command line access through a serial terminal using &quot;maintenance&quot; at the console login.<br />
B.The Admin has Unix command line access through a serial terminal using root / default as the userid and password.<br />
C.The Admin has web configuration access to https://10.10.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.<br />
D.The Admin has web configuration access to https://192.168.1.99/admin/ using admin / admin as the userid and password.<br />
E.The Admin has Unix command line access through a keyboard and monitor using root / default as the userid and password.<br />
Answer: AD</p>
<p>3. Which two statements are true about the different FirePass hardware models? (Choose two.)<br />
A.The FirePass 1000 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.<br />
B.The FirePass 4100 model will support 250 concurrent users on one box.<br />
C.The FirePass 600 model will support the Portal Access feature if a license is purchased.<br />
D.The FirePass 1000 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.<br />
E.The FirePass 4100 model will support 2500 concurrent users on two boxes in a Cluster configuration.<br />
Answer: BE</p>
<p>4. Which of the following can not be configured during the FirePass Quick Setup Wizard at v5.4.1 or later?<br />
A.FirePass IP Address<br />
B.Administrator password<br />
C.DNS Server IP Address<br />
D.VLAN interface tag value<br />
E.SSL VPN Network Access connection<br />
F.Self-Signed SSL certificate configuration<br />
Answer: D</p>
<p>5. Which two statements are true about the FirePass Quick Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)<br />
A.The steps include setting up the license for the FirePass server.<br />
B.The steps include setting up ssh access to the FirePass server.<br />
C.The steps include changing the SuperUser userid and password for the FirePass server.<br />
D.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 1 FirePass NIC IP Address, a Gateway and a DNS server.<br />
E.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway and a DNS server.<br />
F.The steps include setting up a basic IP configuration including 3 FirePass NIC IP Addresses, a Gateway, a DNS server and a FQDN for the FirePass server.<br />
Answer: CD</p>
<p>6. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which two ways? (Choose two.)<br />
A.A backup snapshot file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.<br />
B.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the local PC using the command line maintenance script.<br />
C.A backup configuration file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.<br />
D.A backup configuration file may be saved to the local PC using the web configuration Admin console.<br />
E.A backup snapshot file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line maintenance script.<br />
F.A backup configuration file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.<br />
Answer: DE</p>
<p>7. How many concurrent users can a FirePass Controller Support? (Choose three.)<br />
A.A standalone FirePass 1000 can support 100 users.<br />
B.A standalone FirePass 1000 can support 250 users.<br />
C.A standalone FirePass 4100 can support 1000 users.<br />
D.A standalone FirePass 4100 can support 2500 users.<br />
E.Using the FirePass clustering feature, a cluster of FirePass 1000&#8242;s can support 2500 users.<br />
F.Using the FirePass clustering feature, a cluster of FirePass 4100&#8242;s can support 10000 users.<br />
Answer: ACF</p>
<p>8. Which three statements are true about FirePass Administrators? (Choose three.)<br />
A.Administrator logons can be authenticated externally to FirePass.<br />
B.All FirePass Administrators can access the FirePass user webtop.<br />
C.Other FirePass users setup as Administrators can change the SuperUser password.<br />
D.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can change any FirePass users password.<br />
E.FirePass Administrators with the correct rights can only change FirePass internally authenticated users&#8217; passwords.<br />
Answer: ABE</p>
<p>9. What Answer contains the correct Source IP Address combination of the Network packet as it traverses the FirePass Server for an established Network Access connection given the following conditions?<br />
NAPT &#8211; disabled,<br />
Client machine IP Address &#8211; 216.34.94.17<br />
VPN Pool Address range -104.21.47.0/24<br />
FirePass Interface Addresses &#8211; External 110.121.32.10, Internal 205.229.151.10 -<br />
The first Source IP Address listed is from client to FirePass, the second is from FirePass to Server.<br />
A.216.34.94.17 &#8212; 216.34.94.17<br />
B.216.34.94.17 &#8212; 104.21.47.12<br />
C.104.21.47.12 &#8212; 104.21.47.12<br />
D.216.34.94.17 &#8212; 205.229.151.10<br />
E.104.21.47.12 &#8212; 205.229.151.10<br />
F.205.229.151.10 &#8212; 205.229.151.10<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>10. Which three statements are true about the options available from the FirePass command line maintenance script? (Choose three.)<br />
A.It can be used to shutdown and restart the FirePass Controller.<br />
B.It can be used to reset the FirePass Controller to factory defaults.<br />
C.It can be used to add Administrator userids to the FirePass Controller.<br />
D.It can be used to reset any users password for the FirePass Controller.<br />
E.It can be used for Network Diagnostics such as ping, netstat and IP Address settings.<br />
Answer: ABE</p>
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		<title>Just4Cert ee0-501 Free download</title>
		<link>http://www.certification-braindumps.net/ee0-501-exams/</link>
		<comments>http://www.certification-braindumps.net/ee0-501-exams/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Thu, 15 Oct 2009 22:10:51 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description><![CDATA[ee0-501 Exam F5 Big-Ip V4 Exam practice exam Exam Number/Code : ee0-501 Exam Name : F5 Big-Ip V4 Exam Questions and Answers : 50 Q&#38;As Update Time: 2009-09-14 Price: $ 150.00 $ 125.00 buy now:ee0-501 ee0-501 exam Exam Description It is well known that ee0-501 test is the hot exam of Exam Express certifications. just4cert [...]]]></description>
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Title    :  F5 Big-Ip V4 Exam</p>
<p>
1. When a Virtual Server is created, which VLANs are enabled for the Virtual Server by default?<br />
A. all existing VLANs<br />
B. the internal VLAN only<br />
C. the external VLAN only<br />
D. the VLAN used by the default route only<br />
E. None are associated by default. All assignments are explicit.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>2. You are using the Setup Utility. Which two statements about the DNS Proxy section are true? (Choose two.)<br />
A. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server is entered here.<br />
B. If the option is chosen, it allows the BIG-IP System to resolve host names for nodes.<br />
C. If the option is chosen, the hostname of an available DNS server must be entered here.<br />
D. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server on the same subnet must be entered here.<br />
Answer: AB</p>
<p>3. Which three methods are available for authentication of administrative users logging on to BIG-IP&#8217;s web-based Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)<br />
A. Local LDAP database<br />
B. Local Radius database<br />
C. Remote LDAP database<br />
D. Remote Radius database<br />
E. Local master.passwd database<br />
Answer: ACD</p>
<p>4. Which BIG-IP log file stores data concerning node status?<br />
A. Status Log (/var/log/status)<br />
B. BIG-IP Log (/var/log/bigip)<br />
C. Monitor Log (/var/log/bigd)<br />
D. System Log (/var/log/messages)<br />
Answer: C</p>
<p>5. Which statement is true concerning the configuration of Pools?<br />
A. Each Pool is configured with a primary load balancing method and a backup load balancing method.<br />
B. A Pool cannot be created unless the Virtual Server that will use it already exists.<br />
C. Every Pool is configured with a load balancing method.<br />
D. Once a node is added to one Pool, it cannot be added to any other Pools.<br />
Answer: C</p>
<p>6. Which IP address does the BIG-IP assign itself by default at startup, before the BIG-IP has been configured<br />
A. 10.10.1.245 or 192.168.245.245<br />
B. 192.168.1.127 or 192.168.1.245<br />
C. 192.168.245.245 or 192.168.1.245<br />
D. 172.16.1.245 or 172.16.245.245<br />
Answer: C</p>
<p>7. Which statement describes the function of the Fallback Host setting in a Pool?<br />
A. If all members of a Pool are unavailable, the client is sent a HTTP redirect to the specified fallback host.<br />
B. If one member of a Pool becomes unavailable, the fallback host is temporarily added to the Pool as a member.<br />
C. The fallback host setting is where the DNS name of the Pool is configured.<br />
D. The fallback host setting is used by the administrator to specify another Pool to use in case all nodes are unavailable.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>8. Which of the following parameters can be specified with the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)<br />
A. current time<br />
B. password of the &quot;root&quot; user<br />
C. IP address of an initial Virtual Server<br />
D. IP address restrictions for access to the Configuration Utility<br />
E. self IP addresses<br />
Answer: BDE</p>
<p>9. When administrative users are created, which three access levels can they be granted through the BIG-IP Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)<br />
A. CLI<br />
B. Web Read Only<br />
C. CLI + Web Read Only<br />
D. CLI + Full Web Read / Write<br />
E. CLI + Partial Web Read / Write<br />
Answer: ABD</p>
<p>10. Which statement describes normal traffic through a Virtual Server on a BIG-IP?<br />
A. source IP address translated in both initiating and responding packets<br />
B. destination IP address translated in both initiating and responding packets<br />
C. destination IP address translated in initiating packets; source IP address translated in response packets<br />
D. source IP address translated in initiating packets; destination IP address translated in response packets<br />
Answer: C</p>
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		<title>Just4Cert EE0-513 Free download</title>
		<link>http://www.certification-braindumps.net/EE0-513-exams/</link>
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		<pubDate>Mon, 05 Oct 2009 12:07:55 +0000</pubDate>
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				<category><![CDATA[Exam Express]]></category>

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		<description><![CDATA[EE0-513 Exam F5 BIG-IP GTM v9.x practice exam Exam Number/Code : EE0-513 Exam Name : F5 BIG-IP GTM v9.x Questions and Answers : 49 Q&#38;As Update Time: 2009-09-14 Price: $ 150.00 $ 125.00 buy now:EE0-513 EE0-513 exam Exam Description It is well known that EE0-513 test is the hot exam of Exam Express certifications. just4cert [...]]]></description>
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<p>
1. What must be sent to the license server to generate a new license?<br />
A.the system&#8217;s dossier<br />
B.the system&#8217;s base license<br />
C.the system&#8217;s serial number<br />
D.the system&#8217;s purchase order number<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>2. Which statement about root DNS servers is true?<br />
A.Root servers have databases of all registered DNS servers.<br />
B.Root servers have databases of the DNS servers for top-level domains.<br />
C.Root servers have databases of DNS servers for each geographical area.  They direct requests to appropriate LDNS servers.<br />
D.Root servers have databases of commonly accessed sites.  They also cache entries for additional servers as requests are made.<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>3. When initially configuring the GTM System using the config tool, which two parameters can be set? (Choose two.)<br />
A.System hostname<br />
B.IP Address of management port<br />
C.IP Address of the external VLAN<br />
D.Default route for management port<br />
E.Port lockdown of management port<br />
Answer: BD</p>
<p>4. When users are created, which three access levels can be granted through the GTM Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)<br />
A.Root<br />
B.Guest<br />
C.Operator<br />
D.Administrator<br />
E.CLI + Web Read Only<br />
Answer: BCD</p>
<p>5. With standard DNS, assuming no DNS request failures, which process describes the normal resolution process on a &quot;first time&quot; DNS request?<br />
A.Client requests address from root server, root server returns IP address to Authoritative DNS, Authoritative DNS returns requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.<br />
B.Client requests address from LDNS, LDNS requests from GTM, GTM requests from Authoritative DNS, Authoritative DNS returns requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.<br />
C.Client requests address from LDNS, Authoritative DNS receives request from root server, root server returns LDNS address, LDNS returns client address, Authoritative DNS returns requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.<br />
D.Client requests address from LDNS, LDNS requests from root server, root server returns Authoritative DNS address, LDNS requests from Authoritative DNS, Authoritative DNS returns requested IP address, LDNS returns requested IP address to client.<br />
Answer: D</p>
<p>6. Which two daemons only run once the entire license process has been completed? (Choose two.)<br />
A.zrd<br />
B.tmm<br />
C.ntpd<br />
D.gtmd<br />
Answer: AD</p>
<p>7. Which two ports must be enabled to establish communication between GTM Systems and other BIG-IP Systems?  (Choose two.)<br />
A.22<br />
B.53<br />
C.443<br />
D.4353<br />
E.4354<br />
Answer: AD</p>
<p>8. After licensing the GTM System, what must be performed to complete activation?<br />
A.reboot of system<br />
B.manual restart of gtmd<br />
C.manual restart of tmm<br />
D.enter the command bigstart restart<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>9. Which three parameters can be specified within the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)<br />
A.password of the &quot;root&quot; user<br />
B.IP address of an NTP server<br />
C.IP address of an initial Wide-IP<br />
D.IP address restrictions for ssh access<br />
E.all necessary administrative IP addresses (including floating addresses)<br />
Answer: ADE</p>
<p>10. If the config tool is complete, which three access methods are available by default for GTM administration and configuration on 520/540 platforms? (Choose three.)<br />
A.network access via http<br />
B.network access via https<br />
C.network access via telnet<br />
D.direct access via serial port<br />
E.direct access via keyboard and monitor<br />
Answer: BDE</p>
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		<title>Just4Cert EE0-515 Free download</title>
		<link>http://www.certification-braindumps.net/EE0-515-exams/</link>
		<comments>http://www.certification-braindumps.net/EE0-515-exams/#comments</comments>
		<pubDate>Sun, 04 Oct 2009 03:36:45 +0000</pubDate>
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				<category><![CDATA[Exam Express]]></category>

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<p>
1. Which statement is true regarding Portal Access: Access Control Lists?<br />
A. ACL&#8217;s can be applied to the Master Group and Favorites.<br />
B. ACL&#8217;s can prevent favorites from being viewable from the Webtop.<br />
C. ACL&#8217;s require that an Active X component be downloaded and installed automatically when the user clicks on a favorite.<br />
D. Un-checking &quot;show administrator defined favorites only&quot; on the Master Group settings page will allow the user to browse to any URL regardless of the configured ACL&#8217;s.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>2. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which way?<br />
A. A backup file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.<br />
B. A backup file may be saved to a local PC using the web configuration Admin console.<br />
C. A backup file may be saved to the local PC using the command line &quot;maintenance&quot; script.<br />
D. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.<br />
E. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line &quot;maintenance&quot; script.<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>3. Which statement is true about the Failover Synchronization process on FirePass?<br />
A. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby automatically.<br />
B. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active automatically.<br />
C. The Synchronization process can be configured using a virtual IP Address.<br />
D. The configuration is synched from Active to Standby manually by an Administrator.<br />
E. The configuration is synched from Standby to Active manually by an Administrator.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>4. Which is a valid way to tell whether the Admin is connected to the Master as opposed to the Slave Node in a cluster of  FirePass Controllers?<br />
A. Admin console / Clustering option is absent.<br />
B. Admin console / Clustering option is present.<br />
C. Admin console / Portal Access option is present.<br />
D. Admin console / Network Access option is present.<br />
Answer: C</p>
<p>5. Which three types of applications are supported by the Application Access Legacy Host feature on FirePass? (Choose three.)<br />
A. TN3270 access to mainframe<br />
B. TN3270 ssh access to mainframe<br />
C. TN5250 access to IBM AS/400 systems (System i)<br />
D. Java client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host<br />
E. full featured ActiveX client download for VT100 ssh access to Unix Host<br />
Answer: A C D</p>
<p>6. Which statement is FALSE about an EndPoint security Protected Configuration?<br />
A. All resources are protected by at least one pre-logon check<br />
B. Different resources can be protected by different pre-logon checks<br />
C. Resources can be required to pass more than one pre-logon check<br />
D. Within one pre-logon sequence some checks can be used to protect resources and other checks can restrict access to the  logon screen<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>7. Which two sequences include the &quot;required&quot; steps, in the correct order, for configuring Failover on the FirePass Controller? (Choose two.) 1.restart First (Primary) 2.restart Second (Secondary) 3.enable Failover option on First 4.enable Failover option on Second 5.configure virtual IP Address on First 6. configure virtual IP Address on Second<br />
A. 3, 1, 5, 4, 2, 6<br />
B. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6<br />
C. 3, 1, 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 2<br />
D. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 2<br />
E. 5, 1, 3, 1, 6, 2, 4, 2<br />
F. 5, 1, 6, 2, 3, 1, 4, 2<br />
Answer: C D</p>
<p>8. If a working Active / Standby pair of FirePass Controllers has been configured correctly for Failover, which observation by itself would allow the Admin to tell which FirePass box is is the Active member of the pair?<br />
A. https://&lt;FirePass virtual IP Address&gt;/admin/ / Welcome screen says &quot;In Failover Active Mode&quot;.<br />
B. https://&lt;FirePass physical IP Address&gt;/admin/ / Welcome screen says &quot;In Failover Active Mode&quot;.<br />
C. https://&lt;FirePass virtual IP Address&gt;/admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to &quot;Active&quot;.<br />
D. https://&lt;FirePass physical IP Address&gt;/admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to &quot;Active&quot;.<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>9. Which statement is true for users in a group when the &quot;Show administrator-defined favorites only&quot; option is enabled?<br />
A. They cannot configure their own user favorites.<br />
B. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin and can access other sites with sufficient privileges.<br />
C. They see links setup by the FirePass Admin and links to web servers on the same network as FirePass.<br />
D. They only see links setup by the FirePass Admin but can access other sites by typing in the web-site address.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>10. Based on the pre-logon sequence in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)<br />
A. If the file c:logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.<br />
B. If the file c:logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.<br />
C. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.<br />
D. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.<br />
E. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.<br />
F. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the  FirePass controller.<br />
Answer: A C</p>
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<p>
1. A 3-DNS System performs a name resolution that is not a Wide-IP. The name is in a domain for which the 3-DNS System is authoritative. Where does the information come from?<br />
A. 3-DNS System cannot resolve a host name that is not a Wide-IP.<br />
B. It comes from BIND database (zone) files on the 3-DNS System.<br />
C. It comes from the database of previously cached name resolutions.<br />
D. It comes from a zone transfer initiated when the request was received.<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>2. A Wide-IP has two pools. The first has a set of five Virtual Servers. The second pool redirects requests to a Content Delivery Network (CDN).  How can limits and thresholds be used to manage traffic for this Wide-IP? (Choose two.)<br />
A. If requests exceed the first pool&#8217;s threshold, additional requests can be sent to the CDN.<br />
B. If requests exceed the second pool&#8217;s threshold, additional requests can be sent to the Virtual Servers in the first pool.<br />
C. If requests exceed the Wide-IP&#8217;s threshold, additional requests can be ignored to prevent overloading the Virtual Servers.<br />
D. If requests exceed the second pool&#8217;s threshold, additional requests can be load balanced between the Virtual Servers and the CDN.<br />
Answer: AB</p>
<p>3. What might happen if the big3d agent becomes overloaded due to a large number of local DNSs making resolution requests?<br />
A. The TTL setting for the Wide-IP increases.<br />
B. Some probe statistics may fail to be updated.<br />
C. Address responses to local DNSs are delayed until the big3d agent recovers.<br />
D. The 3-DNS System will not respond to DNS queries until the big3d agent recovers.<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>4. What is the difference between primary and secondary DNS servers?<br />
A. Only primary servers can issue authoritative responses.<br />
B. Primary servers host the original copy of the zone database file.<br />
C. Primary servers resolve names more efficiently than secondary servers.<br />
D. Secondary servers act as back-ups and will respond only if the primary fails.<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>5. A specific ECV can be used to test  _____.<br />
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B. all Virtual Servers in a single pool<br />
C. all Virtual Servers in all pools in a Wide-IP<br />
D. all Virtual Servers in all pools of a group of Wide-IPs<br />
Answer: C</p>
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D.Database Configuration<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>2. FlyNow Airlines wants to display and store the name of the person entering a work order. What are the correct steps? (Choose THREE)<br />
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B.Rebuild the maximo.ear file.<br />
C.Import the changes to the xml file.<br />
D.Add a display name field using the Application Designer.<br />
E.Create a CROSSOVER domain and associate to the display name field.<br />
Answer: ADE</p>
<p>3. R. L. Rivers Company is trying to prevent purchasing from non-approved suppliers. Which method could be used to implement this policy?<br />
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B.Create a Workflow approval process.<br />
C.Use Application Designer to hide the Vendor field.<br />
D.Use Purchase Contracts; make this a required field.<br />
E.Set Security application to lock down Purchase Requisitions.<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>4. Fleet Corporation requires a user dialog to display when a corrective maintenance work order is created and there is a Preventive Maintenance schedule that is due within the next seven days. What must be accomplished in order to address this requirement? (Choose TWO)<br />
A.Extend the PM Class.<br />
B.Set up a standard cron task.<br />
C.Set the Alert Lead on the PM.<br />
D.Configure the PM Alert Option.<br />
E.Create an Alert Lead field on the PM.<br />
Answer: CD</p>
<p>5. What is true about an asset? (Choose TWO)<br />
A.can only have one meter<br />
B.can be moved between sites<br />
C.must be a member of an Item Set<br />
D.must be associated with a location<br />
E.can be moved between organizations<br />
Answer: BE</p>
<p>6. BMI Corporation has a requirement to categorize work orders by an attribute so they can be viewed and managed as a group. How is this accomplished in Maximo? (Choose TWO)<br />
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B.Value List<br />
C.Work Type<br />
D.Service Group<br />
E.Classifications<br />
Answer: CE</p>
<p>7. Mitchell Corporation wants to define an entity that is routinely transferred into a storeroom at a scheduled interval or upon fault detection. This entity can be repaired and re-used.<br />
What is the term to describe this entity in Maximo?<br />
A.Item<br />
B.Asset<br />
C.Location<br />
D.Rotating Item<br />
Answer: D</p>
<p>8. Gander Lumber Company wants to share item data across two business units in different countries. Each business unit has a different financial process. What organization and site structure is recommended?<br />
A.one organization with two sites<br />
B.two organizations with one site each<br />
C.an item set and one organization with two sites<br />
D.an item set and two organizations with one site each<br />
Answer: D</p>
<p>9. FlyNow Airlines performs materials management activities (Item, Inventory Balance tracking, Material Issues/Returns/Receipts) in an external ERP system. What integration points must be implemented in order to keep Maximo updated with the latest item balances and material usage costs?<br />
A.Vendors, Item Master, Inventory<br />
B.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts<br />
C.Vendors, Chart of Accounts, Item Master<br />
D.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts, Issues/Returns<br />
Answer: D</p>
<p>10. Gander Lumber Company needs to identify and notify the responsible person when warranties for critical assets are about to expire. What is used to achieve this client requirement?<br />
A.Escalation<br />
B.Email Listener<br />
C.Purchase Order<br />
D.Service License Agreement (SLA)<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>11. Acme Corporation has a requirement to send emails to administrators when certain assets are approaching the end of their lease. What application is required to send these emails?<br />
A.Workflow<br />
B.Escalation<br />
C.Email Listener<br />
D.SLA (Service Level Agreement)<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>12. What architecture does Maximo 6 use?<br />
A.n-tier<br />
B.1-tier<br />
C.2-tier<br />
D.client/server<br />
Answer: A</p>
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		<description><![CDATA[ee0-512 Exam f5-big-ip v9 local traffic management advanced practice exam Exam Number/Code : ee0-512 Exam Name : f5-big-ip v9 local traffic management advanced Questions and Answers : 48 Q&#38;As Update Time: 2009-09-13 Price: $ 150.00 $ 125.00 buy now:ee0-512 ee0-512 exam Exam Description It is well known that ee0-512 test is the hot exam of [...]]]></description>
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<h1>ee0-512 Exam</h1>
<h2> f5-big-ip v9 local traffic management advanced  <strong>practice exam</strong></h2>
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<li>Exam Name : f5-big-ip v9 local traffic management advanced </li>
<li>Questions and Answers : 48  Q&amp;As </li>
<li>Update Time: 2009-09-13</li>
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Exam	  :  Exam Express EE0-512<br />
Title    :  Exam Express(r) F5-big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management Advanced</p>
<p>
1. Click the Exhibit button.<br />
Given the network in the exhibit and the following partial configuration. If a packet arrived on the BIG-IP with a source IP address of 200.10.10.10 and a destination IP address of 150.10.10.75, what would the source IP address of the associated packet be when it arrived on the chosen member of the web_pool?<br />
A.10.10.1.100<br />
B.150.10.10.15<br />
C.200.10.10.10<br />
D.It would be one of the three IP addresses in the web_pool.<br />
E.It would be the floating self-IP address on the internal VLAN of the BIG-IP.<br />
F.There is insufficient information to determine what the source address would be.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>2. Which file contains the allowed IP addresses for SSH access?<br />
A./etc/hosts.deny<br />
B./etc/sshd_allow<br />
C./etc/hosts.allow<br />
D./etc/sshd_secure<br />
Answer: C</p>
<p>3. A site wishes to use an external monitor. Other than what is coded in the monitor script, what information must be configured on the BIG-IP for the monitor to be functional? (Choose two.)<br />
A.BIG-IP must know the name of the program.<br />
B.BIG-IP must know which functions the program is going to test.<br />
C.BIG-IP must know the IP addresses of the devices that will be tested.<br />
D.BIG-IP must know which node or member the results are to be applied to.<br />
E.BIG-IP must know all services that are running on the system to be tested.<br />
Answer: AD</p>
<p>4. Where are settings for user-defined monitors stored?<br />
A./config/bigd.conf<br />
B./config/bigip.conf<br />
C./etc/base_monitors.ha<br />
D./config/bigip_base.conf<br />
E./config/base_monitors.ha<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>5. Which statement is true concerning packet filters?<br />
A.Filters cannot prevent application viruses.<br />
B.Filters cannot prevent the BIG-IP synching process from taking place.<br />
C.The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied.<br />
D.In addition to administrator-created filters, there always exists a &quot;deny all&quot; filter that processes traffic last.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>6. A BIG-IP has a virtual server at 150.150.10.10:80 that is associated with a load-balancing pool with a single pool member: 10.10.10.1:80. This BIG-IP also has a SNAT at 150.150.10.11 set for all addresses. All other settings are at their default states. If a client with the IP address 200.200.1.1 sends a request to the virtual server, what are the source and destination addresses when the associated packet is sent to the pool member?<br />
A.Source: 200.200.1.1 Destination: 10.10.10.1<br />
B.Source: 150.150.10.11 Destination: 10.10.10.1<br />
C.Source: 200.200.1.1 Destination: 150.150.10.10<br />
D.Source: 150.150.10.11 Destination: 150.150.10.10<br />
Answer: B</p>
<p>7. If a self-IP&#8217;s port lockdown is set to &quot;allow 443&quot;, which statement describes allowed communication to that address?<br />
A.Access is available to the Configuration Utility.<br />
B.Serial console access is prevented since only port 443 access is allowed.<br />
C.Access may be available via SSH dependent upon the /etc/host.allow settings.<br />
D.The partner BIG-IP will be able to synchronize and mirror connection and persistence information.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>8. If a self-IP port lockdown is set to &quot;allow default&quot;, which three ports will accept administrative traffic? (Choose three.)<br />
A.SSH<br />
B.DNS<br />
C.HTTP<br />
D.SMTP<br />
E.HTTPS<br />
Answer: ABE</p>
<p>9. Which are immediate results of entering the following command:<br />
b pool TestPool { lb method predictive member 10.10.1.1:80 member 10.10.1.2:80 }<br />
A.A new pool is available for association with any iRule or virtual server.<br />
B.All existing virtual servers defined are associated with the new pool, TestPool.<br />
C.The /config/bigip.conf file is updated to include a definition for the pool named TestPool.<br />
D.Requests sent to this BIG-IP System with a destination port of 80 are load-balanced between the members of TestPool.<br />
Answer: A</p>
<p>10. As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP. What would be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?<br />
A.Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication.<br />
B.In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is synchronized between the systems.<br />
C.The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same self-IP addresses as the source system.<br />
D.When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they will always connect to the active system.<br />
Answer: C</p>
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