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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-020
Title : ES NetSight Atlas

1. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?
A. Chassis, Device Type and IP
B. Chassis, Matrix and X-Pedition
C. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-Pedition
D. Matrix, X-Pedition and IP
Answer: A

2. Which Compass search type is used to locate authenticated users in a User Personalized Network?
A. IP Address
B. IP Subnet
C. MAC Address
D. User Name
Answer: D

3. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A. View object definitions
B. Set object values
C. Change IP addresses on devices
D. Search for objects
E. Browse the MIB database
Answer: C

4. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?
A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.
B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.
C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
Answer: D

5. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3 Credential
C. SNMPv3 Profile
D. Max Access/Super User
E. All of the above
F. A and C only
Answer: E

6. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?
A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > Options
B. By selecting CIDR in the device properties window
C. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > Options
D. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notation
Answer: A

7. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defining a FlexView?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
E. All of the above
F. B or C only
Answer: F

8. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?
A. Devices, Traps, Archives
B. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration Management
C. Details View, Archives, Chassis
D. Properties, VLAN, Compass
Answer: B

9. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you click the Retrieve button.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

10. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?
A. PlugIn.details
B. common
C. NetSight.properties
D. Atlas.config
Answer: C

11. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?
A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions. Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.
C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. All of the above
Answer: E

12. Which service must be stopped to modify the bootptab file?
A. TFTP
B. SNMP trapd
C. BOOTP
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-102
Title : Enterasys Security Systems Engineer-Defense

1. The net-config-client.xml file is associated with?
A. The Enterprise Management Server (EMS)
B. Managed node client
C. Enterprise Management Server (EMS) Management Client
D. Reporting server
Answer: B

2. Which of the following techniques is not a viable way for a Device Support Module (DSM) to receive event data?
A. OPSEC
B. SSH
C. SYSLOG
D. SNMP V3 Inform
Answer: B

3. Traffic direction refers to traffic flows in relation to the
A. Server
B. Protected network
C. Client
D. DMZ
Answer: B

4. The virtual sensor name?
A. Must match the license name
B. Is included in all events reported by the virtual sensor
C. Must include the node name
D. Applies only to the device view
Answer: B

5. Which of the following Dragon Agents sends notifications when the sensors detect an event that match a rule?
A. Real Time Console
B. MD5 Sum
C. Alarm Tool
D. Database
Answer: C

6. Dynamic Collection controls
A. The number of packets to analyze
B. The number of times to execute the signature in a flow
C. The number of follow on packets to capture for forensics
D. The number of bytes to search for a match
Answer: C

7. When using the Report Wizard within the Dragon Security Command Console all but one of the following formats can be chosen for output?
A. HTML
B. DOC
C. RTF
D. PDF
Answer: B

8. Network policies and signatures are associated with the?
A. Managed node
B. Network sensor
C. Virtual sensor
D. Agent
Answer: C

9. In a signature the service direction refers to
A. Ports
B. Networks
C. VLANS
D. Protocols
Answer: A

10. The license key file for Dragon Security Command Console must be?
A. pulled automatically from the Dragon EMS Server in the /usr/dragon/policymgr/keys directory
B. manually copied to each of the remote Behavioral Flow Sensors before flows are collected
C. must be carefully entered into the license field of the Dragon Administration Console because it is tied to the hostname of the server and may have an extra carriage return at the end of the file
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-103
Title : Enterasys Security Systems Engineer-NAC

1. What type of end systems will not interact with Enterasys Sentinel?
A. Unmanaged PCs (i.e. PCs not under the administrative control of IT operations)
B. Managed PCs (i.e. PCs under the administrative control of IT operations)
C. IP Phones, IP cameras, printer
D. None of the Above
Answer: D

2. Which of the following information is required for creating a MAC Override?
A. Switch IP address
B. Configuration Template
C. MAC
D. All of the above
Answer: D

3. What is the minimum number of Assessment Servers required to implement end-system assessment?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

4. Which of the following are required fields to import a User override from a file?
A. User Name
B. Configuration Template
C. Security Domain
D. All of the Above
Answer: D

5. What failed action(s) can be specified for the Lock MAC configuration
A. Reject
B. Use User Override
C. User MAC Override
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-019
Title : ES Policy Enabled Networking

1. Authentication is used in Secure Application Provisioning to:
A. Quarantine malicious traffic
B. Persistently apply policy
C. Allow configuration of a switch’s host data port
D. provide additional network access
Answer: D

2. After configuration changes have been made in NetSight Atlas Policy Manager, what must be done before the changes take effect on the devices?
A. The NMS must be rebooted
B. The changes must be enforced
C. The changes must be verified
D. Nothing the changes take effect immediately
Answer: B

3. All of the following are services which make up the pre-configured Acceptable Use Policy service group EXCEPT:
A. Deny Spoofing
B. Permit Legacy Protocols
C. Limit Exposure to DoS attacks
D. Protocol Priority Access Control
Answer: B

4. In the three-level policy model, Enterasys maps:
A. The business/network level to classification rules
B. The service-provisioning level to roles
C. The device level to classification rules
D. All of the above
Answer: C

5. In the Enterasys policy-enabled network model, on-demand policy assignment:
A. Is the result of a manual configuration
B. Makes use of the Filter-ID parameter
C. Is overridden by a ports default role
D. Requires the use of 802.1X authentication mechanisms
Answer: B

6. A distinguishing characteristic of PEAP is:
A. It adds security by running over a VPN tunnel
B. It uses salt encryption
C. It requires that only the supplicant present a certificate
D. It creates keying material using the Pseudo-Random Function
Answer: D

7. Certificate services must be installed when using:
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-MD5
C. PWA
D. MAC authentication
Answer: A

8. Persistent policy assignment:
A. Can be effective in an incremental deployment of acceptable use policy
B. Is dependent upon a RADIUS back-end configuration
C. Is deployed based on user authentication
D. Cannot be used on uplink ports
Answer: A

9. The Active Edge consists of:
A. Policy-enabled switches
B. Core routers
C. SAP servers
D. User resources
Answer: A

10. Saving a NetSight Atlas Policy Manager configuration to a .pmd file:
A. Writes the configuration to NVRAM on the switches
B. Allows for multiple configurations to be stored on the NMS
C. Notifies the RADIUS server that new policies have been created
D. Temporarily disables communication between all RADIUS clients until the save is complete
Answer: B

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-104
Title : Enterasys Certified Internetworking Engineer(ECIE)

1. Which of the following is not a pre-defined Port Group in NetSight Policy Manager to:
A. All ports
B. Authenticated ports
C. Logical ports
D. CDP ports
Answer: B

2. An Acceptable Use Policy for the network should define:
A. Which types of traffic trusted users only are allowed to generate on the network
B. Which types of traffic untrusted users only are allowed to generate on the network
C. Which types of traffic trusted and untrusted users are allowed to generate on the network
D. Which types of traffic guest users only are allowed to generate on the network
Answer: C

3. The RADIUS Filter-ID parameter is used to:
A. Authenticate users
B. Authenticate a RADIUS client
C. Pass policy information to a switch to authorize an authenticated user with a level of network access
D. Discard traffic destined for a RADIUS server
Answer: C

4. Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, protects the network from Denial of Service attacks on the network?
A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny DoS Attacks service
C. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
D. Application Provisioning – AUP service
Answer: C

5. A new virus has been identified on the Internet causing an infected system to listen to TCP port X for allowing remote connections to the infected device. If a network administrator desires to prevent infected devices from being further exploited within the enterprise network, the network administrator should configure and enforce policy for infected devices to the Active Edge of the network that:
A. Discards traffic destined to TCP port X
B. Discards traffic sourced from TCP port X
C. Prioritizes traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X to a low priority
D. Rate limit traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X
Answer: B

6. As defined in NetSight Policy Managers demo.pmd file, the Secure Guest Access Service Group:
A. Allows PPTP and HTTP traffic only, and discards all other traffic
B. Allows HTTP, DNS, and DHCP traffic only, and discards all other traffic
C. Allows PPTP, HTTP, DNS, and DHCP traffic, and denies access to all other TCP/UDP ports and unsupported protocols on the network
D. Discards all traffic
Answer: C

7. A new virus has been identified on the Internet causing an infected system to listen to TCP port X for allowing remote connections to the infected device. If a network administrator desires to prevent an internal user from connecting to an infected device, the network administrator should configure and enforce policy for malicious users to the Active Edge of the network that:
A. Discards traffic destined to TCP port X
B. Discards traffic sourced from TCP port X
C. Prioritizes traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X to a low priority
D. Rate limit traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X
Answer: A

8. In a multi-vendor environment where 3 rd party devices are located at the edge of the network and are not policy-capable, installing a policy-capable device in the distribution layer:
A. Protects the network core from internally sourced attacks
B. Protects the server farm from internally sourced attacks
C. Secures other access layer segments connected through the policy-capable distribution layer device
D. All of the above
Answer: D

9. Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, reduces network congestion by removing legacy protocols from the network such as IPX?
A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny Spoofing & other Administrative Protocols service
C. Threat Management service
D. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
Answer: A

10. Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, protects the network from a user masquerading as a valid service on the network?
A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny Spoofing & other Administrative Protocols service
C. Application Provisioning AUP service
D. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
Answer: B

11. In a multi-vendor environment, where is the placement of a policy capable device most effective in discarding malicious traffic and protecting the entire network:
A. At the access layer edge
B. At the distribution layer
C. In the DMZ
D. In the core
Answer: A

12. The following components are mandatory for dynamic policy deployment on the network:
A. NetSight Policy Manager and policy-capable devices
B. NetSight Policy Manager, policy-capable devices, and authentication services
C. NetSight Policy Manager and any device
D. NetSight Policy Manager only
Answer: B

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-011
Title : ES Router Configuration

1. Which two types of VLAN ports are supported on the X-Pedition Router?
A. Access and Full Duplex
B. Control and Hybrid
C. Trunk and Control
D. Access and Trunk
Answer: D

2. What are the two Queuing Management policies on the X-Pedition Router?
A. Strict Priority, Control Policy
B. Control Policy, Precedence Policy
C. Strict Priority, Weighted Fair Queuing
D. Control Policy, Weighted Fair Queuing
Answer: C

3. When an L3 interface is created on the X-Pedition Router and associated with a single port, which type of VLAN is created?
A. Implicit Port based
B. Implicit Subnet based
C. Explicit Bridged-Protocol based
D. No VLAN is created or required
Answer: B

4. What is the second step to gain access to an X-Pedition Router when the password is unknown?
A. Copy the startup file to a backup
B. Power cycle the router
C. Press CTRL+ALT+DEL
D. Rename the active file to bootup
Answer: A

5. What of the following would cause the X-Pedition Router to go into Boot Prom Mode?
A. a loss of power
B. an invalid system image during bootup
C. an invalid startup configuration during bootup
D. Removing the PCMCIA card when the control module is operating
Answer: BD

6. Which two of the following descriptions are characteristics of the X-Pedition Router?
A. Routing is performed by hardware
B. The addition of new interfaces affects routing performance
C. Forwarding and lookups are performed on each individual module
D. Implementing Quality of Service and/or security Access Control Lists decreases performance
Answer: AC

7. What is the slot numbering scheme for the XP8000 (formerly the SSR8000)?
A. bottom left slot 0 to top right slot 7
B. bottom left slot 0 to top right slot 8
C. bottom right slot 0 to top left slot 7
D. bottom right slot 0 to top left slot 8
Answer: A

8. Which two L3 multicast routing protocols does the X-Pedition Router support?
A. PIM-SM
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. DVMRP
Answer: AD

9. During the boot process, what are all the physical ports initially added to?
A. default VLAN
B. configured VLAN
C. protocol-based VLAN
D. Physical ports are not detected during boot process
Answer: A

10. Which one of the following statements best describes the L2 operation of the X-Pedition Router?
A. It acts as a Store and Forward switch.
B. It acts as a Simple Cut-Through switch.
C. It acts as an Adaptive Cut-Through switch.
D. It acts as a Store and Cut-Through switch.
Answer: A

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-100
Title : Enterasys Systems Engineer (ESE) Recertification

1. Which router supports OSPF redistribution of the following protocols; BGP, OSPF, OSPF-ASE, IS-IS, and Aggregate.
A.Matrix X
B.Matrix DFE
C.Matrix E1
D.SecureStack C2
Answer: A

2. NetSight Console can both discover and manage 3rd party switches.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

3. What is a Mobility Domain?
A.A logical grouping of Wireless Switches that form a seamless roaming region.
B.A specific group of radios within a single WLAN configured to limit user movement to a specific area.
C.The fringe zone between radio coverage areas where a WLAN user roams from one radio to another.
D.A geographical zone of the WLAN where a set of policy ACLs is enforced.
Answer: A

4. Which Routing devices require an advance routing license in order to use OSPF?
A.Matrix N Platinum & SecureStack C2
B.Matrix X & Matrix E1
C.SecureStack C2 & Matrix X
D.Matrix E1 & SecureStack C2
Answer: A

5. The RADIUS Filter-ID parameter is used to:
A.Authenticate users.
B.Authenticate a RADIUS client.
C.Pass policy role information to the Network Access Server (NAS).
D.Discard traffic destined for a RADIUS server.
Answer: C

6. Firmware upgrade of a stack of SecureStack C2 switches involves downloading the image to the management IP address of a stack, and the image is automatically distributed to all the switches in the stack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

7. What is the interval that DVMRP routers send Route Report packets to adjacent DVMRP routers?
A.30 seconds.
B.60 seconds.
C.120 seconds.
D.None of the above
Answer: B

8. In the Planning Tool, what is the procedure to move a DAP?
A.Just click on the DAP, then drag and drop it to a new location.
B.Close the planning tool, release the DAP lock and then reinsert it.
C.Right click on the DAP and select the properties tab, then enter the new coordinates in the topography screen.
D.You can not move the DAP, you must delete it and then re-add it, making sure to specify the DAP location before you hit the "calculate and place DAPs" button.
Answer: A

9. What restriction, if any, is placed on aggregating ports on the Matrix E1?
A.Only fixed ports may be aggregated.
B.Ports in a trunk must all be attached to the same internal chip set.
C.Only three ports can be aggregated at a time.
D.There are no restrictions.
Answer: B

10. A FlexView table can be exported in which format?
A.Bar graph
B.Pie chart
C.gif
D.HTML
Answer: D

11. What is the maximum number of Matrix C2 modules that can be configured in a stack?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer: D

12. How can you differentiate between the Gold and Platinum DFE modules?
A.The Platinum part numbers begin with 4 while the Gold begins with 7.
B.The only way to tell is by the color of the tab.
C.The Platinum part numbers begin with 6 and the Gold begins with 4.
D.The Platinum part number begins with 7 and the Gold begins with 4.
Answer: D

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-023
Title : ES Advanced Dragon IDS

1. Which of the following best describes the Host Sensor Event Detection Engine (EDE)?
A. Scrutinizes events, either altering the contents of the event or discarding it
B. Generates alerts or guarantees delivery of events to destinations
C. Analyzes events and produces categorized event forensics reports
D. Detects an event and forwards it to the Host Sensor framework for processing
Answer: D

2. What functions can Dragon accomplish as related to a corporate/network security policy?
A. Dragon agents can gather information about network security compromises and automatically produce corporate/network security policy documents
B. Dragon agents can detect and log security policy deviations
C. Dragon agents can assist with security policy enforcement via Active Responses
D. Dragon can evaluate a corporate/network policy to determine if it is complete and effective
Answer: BC

3. Which of the following must an IDS administrator consider when deploying Dragon in accordance with a corporate security policy?
A. Must understand the purpose and scope of each aspect of the overall security policy
B. Must understand the security goals of each product in the organization (i.e., operating systems, routers, firewalls, NIDS, HIDS, VPN gateways)
C. Must understand the detailed configurations on each router within the security domain
D. Must understand how the security policy impacts the I.T. budget
Answer: AB

4. Which of the following CONSUME event data from the Dragon Ring Buffer?
A. Alarmtool agent
B. Replication agent
C. Connection Manager
D. Consumer Agent
Answer: AB

5. Which vulnerability scanner and report format is required for use with the Dragon VCT?
A. MySQL; .msq formatted output
B. Nessis; .nfr formatted output
C. Nessus; .nes formatted output
D. Nessus; .nsr formatted output
E. NMAP; .nmp formatted output
Answer: D

6. Which of the following best describes the function of CVE?
A. A database of known attacks that can be loaded into an IDS or similar system
B. A database of numerically cross-referenced IDS events that can help any IDS to correlate detected attacks
C. A dictionary of standardized names for vulnerabilities and other information security exposures
D. All of the above
Answer: C

7. Which of the following is NOT a recommended means of vulnerability response using Dragon?
A. Use the Dragon NMAP PERL scripts to tune the dragon.net file
B. Deploy Dragon Deceptive Services (Honeypot)
C. Deploy Dragon Vulnerability Correlation Tool
D. Enable SSL and AES on the Network Sensor to DPM communication channel
E. Correlate Dragon forensics reports with vulnerability scanner output, and create new signatures as necessary
Answer: D

8. Which of the following is NOT a function of a network vulnerability scanner?
A. Monitors health of software applications
B. Output is critical in helping an IDS administrator know the state of the network
C. Catalogs vulnerabilities
D. Shuts down vulnerable TCP/UPD ports to prevent intrusion
Answer: D

9. Which of the following best describe some scalability features of the Dragon Event Flow Processor (EFP)?
A. Consolidates events from multiple Dragon Policy Managers into one stream
B. Aggregated events from an EFP can be forwarded to other EFPs in a hierarchy
C. An EFP cannot simultaneously support Dragon Realtime Console, Forensics Console and Alarmtool
D. EFPs can be secured by a firewall and configured to initiate Sensor connections from inside the firewall
Answer: BD

10. What are three primary common goals of a corporate/network security policy?
A. Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA)
B. Security, Productivity and Adaptability (SPA)
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability (CIA)
D. Authentication, Encryption and Compression (AEC)
Answer: C